I have a few missions that I'd like to fly in the City of Chicago. My plan is to do it early enough in the morning that few if any people would be out. Chicago is one of those places where the intepretation of the law or the law itself can be largely what the authority on hand says it is. That being said, I think I'm within the law to fly the missions, but there are some nuances the way the Chicago Municipal Code drone ordinance is written and I'd like some input how both definition and authority. So, as written (abridged) the ordinance
Chicago municipal Code 10-36-400(b)(2), Chicago Drone Ordinance states :
(1) No person shall operate a drone in city airspace except for hobby or recreational purposes only and in conformity with this section. Check. Recreational.
(2) directly over any person who is not involved in the operation of the small unmanned aircraft, without such person’s consent. No issue. No intent on flying over people.
(3) over property that the operator does not own, without the property owner’s consent, and subject to any restrictions that the property owner may place on such operation. Aye, there's the rub (and question).
One one hand, a lay person could make the case that "there is no owner" and it is public land. OTOH, the authority in the flesh might take a position that "the city owns the propertly, even though public, and you must get a permit from (someone in) the city (whoever that person is, you can only imaging the size and relative anonymity of the bureaucracy here.
So... How do you read #3, and how would you approach the situation?
Chicago municipal Code 10-36-400(b)(2), Chicago Drone Ordinance states :
(1) No person shall operate a drone in city airspace except for hobby or recreational purposes only and in conformity with this section. Check. Recreational.
(2) directly over any person who is not involved in the operation of the small unmanned aircraft, without such person’s consent. No issue. No intent on flying over people.
(3) over property that the operator does not own, without the property owner’s consent, and subject to any restrictions that the property owner may place on such operation. Aye, there's the rub (and question).
One one hand, a lay person could make the case that "there is no owner" and it is public land. OTOH, the authority in the flesh might take a position that "the city owns the propertly, even though public, and you must get a permit from (someone in) the city (whoever that person is, you can only imaging the size and relative anonymity of the bureaucracy here.
So... How do you read #3, and how would you approach the situation?