Chip
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If I am understanding this correctly the property owner does "own" a certain amount of the airspace over their property but the government can make use of that airspace if there is a compelling reason to do so but must pay compensation. Is that correct?
The use of the word "own" can be problematic in this situation. As I believe SAR may have mentioned earlier, Its more like the right to use and enjoy the airspace above your land. But, yes, Causby stands for proposition that governmental interference with use and enjoyment of property through aerial activities may constitute a "taking" requiring compensation.
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